Sunday, June 20, 2010

Jesus Fulfilled What Exactly?

"Jesus fulfilled 'The Law.'"  This phrase that I hear from Christians is equally as amusing as "Jesus died for your sins."  The question that remains in my mind is what does it mean when they say "Jesus fulfilled the Law?"  The origin of this notion comes from the Christian "New" Testament in Matthew 5:17:
“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.”


If we look at the verse and see that Torah was not meant to be abolished, that means from a contextual standpoint, Jesus must have done something to satisfy its requirements, which Christians would erroneously argue was Jesus' death.  Please refer to my previous blog entry as to why the notion of Jesus dying for anybody's sins is, at the very least, not based on the Hebrew Scriptures that Christians claim that Jesus supposedly fulfilled. 

My foremost comment on this topic is that the origin of having the Torah fulfilled is entirely Christian.  There is not a single mention of the law having to be fulfilled in the entirety of Tanach (Hebrew Scriptures).  As a matter of fact, Tanach talks about the eternality of following Torah (Deut. 11:1, 28:46, 29:28, Psalm 111:7-9, 2 Kings 17:37, Ezekiel 37:24-25), as well as the eternality of G-d's covenant with the people Israel (Genesis 17:9-10).  Anything which contradicts the eternality of Judaism or the Jewish people, such as Jesus fulfilling the law and superseding Judaism, is in direct contradiction with Tanach.  What this ultimately means is that the discrepancies caused by their "Old" and New" Testaments, by definition, makes the Christian Bible a self-contradicting text. 

Now, even if Jesus were this alleged fulfillment of "the Law," he would have to be considered a lousy candidate.  Under Jewish law, marriage and procreation are both mitzvahs, neither of which Jesus did because Jesus remained celibate for all of his days.  Also, as I mentioned in a previous blog entry, Jesus violated the Jewish law of b'al tashchit when he caused the fig tree to die.  Although I can find a myriad of reasons, these two alone exempt Jesus from being considered to be a "perfected embodiment of Jewish law."

My final point regarding this discussion is that even if we give this notion an iota of validity, the main question itself, "Did Jesus fulfill the law," is a conundrum unto itself, which I have illustrated in this handy flowchart: 


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